The Pharmacology Mock Test for Pharmacist Exams comprises a comprehensive set of 100 questions along with their corresponding answers to aid in exam preparation.
1. Which receptor does Atropine primarily block?
A) Nicotinic
B) Muscarinic
C) Alpha-1
D) Beta-2
Answer: B) Muscarinic
2. Propranolol is a:
A) Selective β1 blocker
B) Non-selective β blocker
C) α blocker
D) Calcium channel blocker
Answer: B) Non-selective β blocker
3. Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock:
A) Dopamine
B) Adrenaline
C) Noradrenaline
D) Hydrocortisone
Answer: B) Adrenaline
4. Which drug is a loop diuretic?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Spironolactone
C) Furosemide
D) Mannitol
Answer: C) Furosemide
5. ACE inhibitors act by inhibiting:
A) Renin
B) Angiotensin I
C) Angiotensin converting enzyme
D) Aldosterone
Answer: C) Angiotensin converting enzyme
6. Losartan belongs to:
A) ACE inhibitor
B) ARB
C) Beta blocker
D) CCB
Answer: B) ARB
7. Which drug causes dry cough as side effect?
A) Atenolol
B) Enalapril
C) Amlodipine
D) Losartan
Answer: B) Enalapril
8. Insulin is administered by:
A) Oral route
B) IV only
C) Subcutaneous route
D) Inhalation
Answer: C) Subcutaneous route
9. Metformin acts by:
A) Increasing insulin secretion
B) Decreasing hepatic glucose production
C) Blocking glucose absorption
D) Stimulating pancreas
Answer: B) Decreasing hepatic glucose production
10. Which sulfonylurea has long duration?
A) Glipizide
B) Glyburide (Glibenclamide)
C) Tolbutamide
D) Gliclazide
Answer: B) Glyburide (Glibenclamide)
11. Warfarin acts by inhibiting:
A) Platelets
B) Vitamin K dependent factors
C) Thrombin directly
D) Fibrin
Answer: B) Vitamin K dependent factors
12. Heparin is monitored by:
A) PT
B) INR
C) aPTT
D) BT
Answer: C) aPTT
13. Aspirin inhibits:
A) COX enzyme
B) LOX enzyme
C) MAO
D) PDE
Answer: A) COX enzyme
14. Drug of choice for status epilepticus:
A) Phenytoin
B) Diazepam
C) Carbamazepine
D) Valproate
Answer: B) Diazepam
15. Phenytoin shows:
A) First order kinetics
B) Zero order kinetics at higher dose
C) No metabolism
D) Renal excretion only
Answer: B) Zero order kinetics at higher dose
16. Rifampicin induces:
A) Liver enzymes
B) Kidney enzymes
C) Platelets
D) RBC production
Answer: A) Liver enzymes
17. Isoniazid deficiency leads to:
A) Vitamin A deficiency
B) Vitamin B6 deficiency
C) Vitamin C deficiency
D) Vitamin D deficiency
Answer: B) Vitamin B6 deficiency
18. Ethambutol toxicity affects:
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Eyes (optic neuritis)
D) Ear
Answer: C) Eyes (optic neuritis)
19. Aminoglycosides cause:
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Ototoxicity
C) Cardiotoxicity
D) Nephrolithiasis
Answer: B) Ototoxicity
20. Penicillin acts by inhibiting:
A) Protein synthesis
B) DNA synthesis
C) Cell wall synthesis
D) Folic acid
Answer: C) Cell wall synthesis
21. Tetracycline should not be given to:
A) Adults
B) Elderly
C) Pregnant women & children
D) Diabetics
Answer: C) Pregnant women & children
22. Ciprofloxacin inhibits:
A) RNA polymerase
B) DNA gyrase
C) Ribosome
D) Cell wall
Answer: B) DNA gyrase
23. Vancomycin is used for:
A) Gram negative
B) MRSA
C) Fungal infection
D) Viral infection
Answer: B) MRSA
24. Amphotericin B is:
A) Antiviral
B) Antifungal
C) Antibiotic
D) Antimalarial
Answer: B) Antifungal
25. Acyclovir is used for:
A) TB
B) Herpes virus
C) Malaria
D) HIV
Answer: B) Herpes virus
26. Chloroquine acts on:
A) Liver stage
B) Blood stage
C) Both
D) None
Answer: B) Blood stage
27. Artemisinin is used in:
A) TB
B) Malaria
C) HIV
D) Fungal infection
Answer: B) Malaria
28. Omeprazole is a:
A) H2 blocker
B) Proton pump inhibitor
C) Antacid
D) Laxative
Answer: B) Proton pump inhibitor
29. Ranitidine blocks:
A) H1 receptor
B) H2 receptor
C) Muscarinic receptor
D) Beta receptor
Answer: B) H2 receptor
30. Metoclopramide is:
A) Antacid
B) Antiemetic
C) Laxative
D) Antidiarrheal
Answer: B) Antiemetic
31. Loperamide is used for:
A) Vomiting
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhea
D) Ulcer
Answer: C) Diarrhea
32. Salbutamol is a:
A) β1 agonist
B) β2 agonist
C) α agonist
D) Muscarinic blocker
Answer: B) β2 agonist
33. Theophylline causes:
A) CNS depression
B) Bronchodilation
C) Sedation
D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: B) Bronchodilation
34. Prednisolone is a:
A) NSAID
B) Steroid
C) Antibiotic
D) Antifungal
Answer: B) Steroid
35. Diclofenac belongs to:
A) Opioid
B) NSAID
C) Steroid
D) Antacid
Answer: B) NSAID
36. Morphine acts on:
A) Alpha receptors
B) Opioid receptors
C) Beta receptors
D) Dopamine receptors
Answer: B) Opioid receptors
37. Naloxone is an antidote for:
A) Paracetamol
B) Morphine
C) Warfarin
D) Heparin
Answer: B) Morphine
38. Paracetamol overdose affects:
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Heart
D) Brain
Answer: B) Liver
39. Atorvastatin inhibits:
A) HMG-CoA reductase
B) ACE
C) COX
D) MAO
Answer: A) HMG-CoA reductase
40. Digoxin is used in:
A) Hypertension
B) Heart failure
C) Asthma
D) Diabetes
Answer: B) Heart failure
41. Lidocaine is a:
A) Local anesthetic
B) General anesthetic
C) Sedative
D) Hypnotic
Answer: A) Local anesthetic
42. Halothane is:
A) IV anesthetic
B) Inhalational anesthetic
C) Opioid
D) NSAID
Answer: B) Inhalational anesthetic
43. Diazepam belongs to:
A) Barbiturate
B) Benzodiazepine
C) Opioid
D) Antipsychotic
Answer: B) Benzodiazepine
44. Haloperidol is used in:
A) Depression
B) Schizophrenia
C) Anxiety
D) Insomnia
Answer: B) Schizophrenia
45. Fluoxetine is a:
A) TCA
B) SSRI
C) MAOI
D) Antipsychotic
Answer: B) SSRI
46. Lithium is used for:
A) Depression
B) Mania
C) Anxiety
D) Epilepsy
Answer: B) Mania
47. Levodopa is used in:
A) Alzheimer’s
B) Parkinson’s disease
C) Epilepsy
D) Stroke
Answer: B) Parkinson’s disease
48. Carbamazepine treats:
A) TB
B) Epilepsy
C) Malaria
D) Fungal infection
Answer: B) Epilepsy
49. Methotrexate inhibits:
A) DNA gyrase
B) Dihydrofolate reductase
C) COX
D) ACE
Answer: B) Dihydrofolate reductase
50. Cyclophosphamide is:
A) Antibiotic
B) Anticancer drug
C) Steroid
D) Antiviral
Answer: B) Anticancer drug
51. Which drug is a calcium channel blocker?
A) Enalapril
B) Amlodipine
C) Propranolol
D) Losartan
Answer: B) Amlodipine
52. Clopidogrel acts by inhibiting:
A) COX enzyme
B) ADP receptor on platelets
C) Thrombin
D) Vitamin K
Answer: B) ADP receptor on platelets
53. Nitroglycerin is used in:
A) Asthma
B) Angina pectoris
C) Epilepsy
D) Diabetes
Answer: B) Angina pectoris
54. Spironolactone is a:
A) Loop diuretic
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Potassium-sparing diuretic
D) Osmotic diuretic
Answer: C) Potassium-sparing diuretic
55. Mannitol acts as:
A) Loop diuretic
B) Osmotic diuretic
C) Thiazide
D) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Answer: B) Osmotic diuretic
56. Acetazolamide inhibits:
A) COX
B) Carbonic anhydrase
C) ACE
D) MAO
Answer: B) Carbonic anhydrase
57. Drug of choice for hypothyroidism:
A) Carbimazole
B) Levothyroxine
C) Propylthiouracil
D) Iodine
Answer: B) Levothyroxine
58. Carbimazole is used in:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Diabetes
D) Hypertension
Answer: B) Hyperthyroidism
59. Oxytocin is used to:
A) Stop bleeding
B) Induce labor
C) Reduce pain
D) Treat infection
Answer: B) Induce labor
60. Misoprostol is a:
A) Prostaglandin analog
B) NSAID
C) Steroid
D) Antibiotic
Answer: A) Prostaglandin analog
61. Sildenafil works by inhibiting:
A) ACE
B) PDE-5
C) COX
D) MAO
Answer: B) PDE-5
62. Cetirizine is a:
A) First-generation antihistamine
B) Second-generation antihistamine
C) Steroid
D) NSAID
Answer: B) Second-generation antihistamine
63. Chlorpheniramine causes:
A) Alertness
B) Sedation
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperglycemia
Answer: B) Sedation
64. Montelukast is used in:
A) Diabetes
B) Asthma
C) Hypertension
D) TB
Answer: B) Asthma
65. Codeine is a:
A) NSAID
B) Opioid analgesic
C) Steroid
D) Antacid
Answer: B) Opioid analgesic
66. Tramadol acts on:
A) Opioid receptors
B) Dopamine receptors
C) Histamine receptors
D) Beta receptors
Answer: A) Opioid receptors
67. Ondansetron blocks:
A) H1 receptor
B) 5-HT3 receptor
C) Dopamine receptor
D) Muscarinic receptor
Answer: B) 5-HT3 receptor
68. Domperidone is:
A) Antacid
B) Antiemetic
C) Laxative
D) Antibiotic
Answer: B) Antiemetic
69. Lactulose is used for:
A) Vomiting
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhea
D) Ulcer
Answer: B) Constipation
70. ORS treats:
A) Fever
B) Dehydration
C) Pain
D) Infection
Answer: B) Dehydration
71. Albendazole is:
A) Antifungal
B) Antihelminthic
C) Antiviral
D) Antibiotic
Answer: B) Antihelminthic
72. Ivermectin is used for:
A) Viral infection
B) Parasitic infection
C) Fungal infection
D) Bacterial infection
Answer: B) Parasitic infection
73. Doxycycline belongs to:
A) Penicillin
B) Tetracycline
C) Macrolide
D) Cephalosporin
Answer: B) Tetracycline
74. Azithromycin is a:
A) Macrolide antibiotic
B) Aminoglycoside
C) Tetracycline
D) Fluoroquinolone
Answer: A) Macrolide antibiotic
75. Linezolid is effective against:
A) Gram negative only
B) Gram positive resistant bacteria
C) Virus
D) Fungi
Answer: B) Gram positive resistant bacteria
76. Meropenem belongs to:
A) Cephalosporin
B) Carbapenem
C) Penicillin
D) Macrolide
Answer: B) Carbapenem
77. Clotrimazole is:
A) Antibiotic
B) Antifungal
C) Antiviral
D) Antimalarial
Answer: B) Antifungal
78. Nystatin is used for:
A) Skin infection
B) Oral candidiasis
C) TB
D) Malaria
Answer: B) Oral candidiasis
79. Zidovudine is used in:
A) TB
B) HIV
C) Malaria
D) Fungal infection
Answer: B) HIV
80. Oseltamivir is for:
A) HIV
B) Influenza
C) TB
D) Hepatitis
Answer: B) Influenza
81. Vitamin K is antidote for:
A) Heparin
B) Warfarin
C) Aspirin
D) Morphine
Answer: B) Warfarin
82. Protamine sulfate is antidote for:
A) Warfarin
B) Heparin
C) Morphine
D) Paracetamol
Answer: B) Heparin
83. N-acetylcysteine treats overdose of:
A) Aspirin
B) Paracetamol
C) Morphine
D) Digoxin
Answer: B) Paracetamol
84. Deferoxamine is used in:
A) Lead poisoning
B) Iron poisoning
C) Mercury poisoning
D) Arsenic poisoning
Answer: B) Iron poisoning
85. Atropine is antidote for:
A) Opioids
B) Organophosphorus poisoning
C) Warfarin
D) Lead
Answer: B) Organophosphorus poisoning
86. Pralidoxime is used with:
A) Morphine
B) Atropine
C) Warfarin
D) Insulin
Answer: B) Atropine
87. Insulin overdose leads to:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hypertension
D) Fever
Answer: B) Hypoglycemia
88. Glucagon treats:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hypertension
D) Asthma
Answer: B) Hypoglycemia
89. Bupivacaine is a:
A) Antibiotic
B) Local anesthetic
C) Antifungal
D) Steroid
Answer: B) Local anesthetic
90. Ketamine is:
A) Sedative
B) Dissociative anesthetic
C) NSAID
D) Antidepressant
Answer: B) Dissociative anesthetic
91. Propofol is used for:
A) Pain relief
B) Induction of anesthesia
C) Infection
D) Diabetes
Answer: B) Induction of anesthesia
92. Midazolam is a:
A) Opioid
B) Benzodiazepine
C) NSAID
D) Steroid
Answer: B) Benzodiazepine
93. Clozapine is used in:
A) Depression
B) Resistant schizophrenia
C) Anxiety
D) Insomnia
Answer: B) Resistant schizophrenia
94. Amitriptyline is a:
A) SSRI
B) TCA
C) MAOI
D) Antipsychotic
Answer: B) TCA
95. Selegiline inhibits:
A) MAO-B
B) COX
C) ACE
D) PDE
Answer: A) MAO-B
96. Allopurinol is used in:
A) Diabetes
B) Gout
C) Hypertension
D) TB
Answer: B) Gout
97. Colchicine treats:
A) Asthma
B) Gout attack
C) Infection
D) Ulcer
Answer: B) Gout attack
98. Methyldopa is preferred in:
A) Children
B) Pregnancy hypertension
C) Elderly
D) Diabetics
Answer: B) Pregnancy hypertension
99. Amlodipine may cause:
A) Dry cough
B) Ankle edema
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Ototoxicity
Answer: B) Ankle edema
100. Rational drug use means:
A) Maximum drugs
B) Correct drug, dose, duration, patient
C) Cheapest drug only
D) Branded drug only
This mock test is designed to evaluate the candidate’s understanding of key pharmacological principles and drug therapies. Each question is meticulously crafted to reflect the knowledge necessary for success in pharmacist examinations, ensuring that participants can confidently assess their readiness. Engage with this valuable resource to enhance your pharmacological expertise and performance on the exam.