Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Mock Test
70 MCQs | Level: Hard → Medium
HOSPITAL PHARMACY BASICS (Q1–15)
Q1. Hospital pharmacy primarily deals with:
A. Agriculture
B. Procurement, storage and dispensing of medicines
C. Industrial production only
D. Veterinary medicine only
Answer: B
Q2. Centralized drug distribution system means:
A. Drugs issued from one central pharmacy
B. Drugs manufactured in hospital
C. Drugs sold outside hospital
D. Drugs stored in wards only
Answer: A
Q3. Unit dose dispensing system improves:
A. Medication safety
B. Drug cost only
C. Tablet hardness
D. Taste masking
Answer: A
Q4. Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee mainly:
A. Manufactures medicines
B. Selects and evaluates drugs in hospital
C. Conducts surgery
D. Performs laboratory diagnosis
Answer: B
Q5. Formulary is:
A. Medical dictionary
B. Approved list of drugs in hospital
C. Drug bill register
D. Prescription pad
Answer: B
Q6. Narcotic drugs should be stored in:
A. Open shelf
B. Locked cupboard
C. Refrigerator only
D. Ward table
Answer: B
Q7. Pharmacy inventory control aims to:
A. Increase wastage
B. Ensure adequate stock with minimum cost
C. Delay supply
D. Avoid record keeping
Answer: B
Q8. FIFO means:
A. First in, first out
B. Final in, final out
C. Fast in, fast out
D. First issue, final order
Answer: A
Q9. FEFO means:
A. First expiry, first out
B. Fast expiry, fast out
C. First entry, final order
D. Final expiry, first out
Answer: A
Q10. Emergency drugs are commonly stored in:
A. Poison cupboard
B. Crash cart
C. Refrigerator
D. Laboratory
Answer: B
Q11. Sterile products are prepared in:
A. General ward
B. Aseptic area
C. OPD
D. Waiting hall
Answer: B
Q12. Hospital-acquired infection is also called:
A. Viral infection
B. Nosocomial infection
C. Zoonotic infection
D. Opportunistic infection
Answer: B
Q13. Bio-medical waste segregation uses:
A. Color coding
B. Weight variation
C. Tablet coating
D. Titration
Answer: A
Q14. Schedule H drugs require:
A. Free sale
B. Prescription
C. No labeling
D. Veterinary approval only
Answer: B
Q15. Look-alike sound-alike drugs increase risk of:
A. Drug stability
B. Medication errors
C. Drug efficacy
D. Bioavailability
Answer: B
CLINICAL PHARMACY & PATIENT CARE (Q16–30)
Q16. Clinical pharmacy focuses on:
A. Manufacturing
B. Patient-oriented pharmaceutical care
C. Agriculture
D. Drug advertising
Answer: B
Q17. Pharmaceutical care aims to:
A. Improve therapeutic outcomes
B. Increase drug prices
C. Promote irrational therapy
D. Reduce counseling
Answer: A
Q18. Medication history includes:
A. Current and past medicines
B. Diet only
C. Exercise only
D. Family income only
Answer: A
Q19. Patient counseling helps improve:
A. Non-compliance
B. Adherence to therapy
C. Drug toxicity
D. Prescription errors
Answer: B
Q20. Therapeutic drug monitoring is important for drugs with:
A. Wide therapeutic index
B. Narrow therapeutic index
C. Pleasant taste
D. Low potency only
Answer: B
Q21. Digoxin requires monitoring because of:
A. Narrow therapeutic index
B. Poor taste
C. Low cost
D. Color instability
Answer: A
Q22. Warfarin therapy is monitored using:
A. Blood sugar
B. INR
C. ECG
D. Temperature
Answer: B
Government Pharmacist Exam Master Series
Q23. Pharmacist intervention helps in:
A. Preventing drug-related problems
B. Increasing ADRs
C. Increasing hospital stay
D. Reducing efficacy
Answer: A
Q24. Medication adherence means:
A. Correct use of medicines as prescribed
B. Drug addiction
C. OTC drug use only
D. Drug storage only
Answer: A
Q25. Non-compliance may lead to:
A. Treatment failure
B. Better outcomes
C. Lower toxicity always
D. Sterility
Answer: A
Q26. Drug utilization review evaluates:
A. Rational use of medicines
B. Color of tablets
C. Drug packaging only
D. Hospital construction
Answer: A
Q27. Clinical pharmacist participates in:
A. Ward rounds
B. Surgery only
C. Manufacturing only
D. Agriculture
Answer: A
Q28. SOAP notes include:
A. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
B. Salt, Oil, Acid, Powder
C. Storage, Order, Analysis, Price
D. Supply, Output, Audit, Packaging
Answer: A
Q29. Pediatric dosing commonly depends on:
A. Eye color
B. Weight/body surface area
C. Occupation
D. Religion
Answer: B
Q30. Geriatric patients are more prone to:
A. Drug interactions and ADRs
B. Faster metabolism always
C. No toxicity
D. Increased immunity only
Answer: A
Government Pharmacist Exam Master Series
ADRs & DRUG INTERACTIONS (Q31–45)
Q31. ADR stands for:
A. Adverse Drug Reaction
B. Additional Drug Record
C. Advanced Drug Research
D. Adverse Diagnostic Report
Answer: A
Q32. Type A ADRs are generally:
A. Predictable
B. Unpredictable
C. Allergic only
D. Genetic only
Answer: A
Q33. Type B ADRs are usually:
A. Dose dependent
B. Predictable
C. Bizarre/unpredictable
D. Mild only
Answer: C
Q34. Pharmacovigilance deals with:
A. Drug pricing
B. Detection and prevention of ADRs
C. Drug manufacturing
D. Drug promotion
Answer: B
Q35. Yellow Card Scheme is related to:
A. Drug advertising
B. ADR reporting
C. Drug storage
D. Inventory control
Answer: B
Q36. Penicillin hypersensitivity is an example of:
A. Type A ADR
B. Type B ADR
C. Drug interaction
D. Side effect only
Answer: B
Q37. Drug interaction may occur at:
A. Pharmacokinetic level
B. Pharmacodynamic level
C. Pharmaceutical level
D. All of these
Answer: D
Q38. Antacids reduce absorption of:
A. Tetracycline
B. Paracetamol
C. Insulin
D. Digoxin only
Answer: A
Q39. Warfarin with aspirin increases risk of:
A. Hypertension
B. Bleeding
C. Asthma
D. Constipation
Answer: B
Q40. Rifampicin is a potent:
A. Enzyme inhibitor
B. Enzyme inducer
C. Antacid
D. Chelating agent
Answer: B
Q41. Grapefruit juice may inhibit:
A. CYP450 enzymes
B. Protein synthesis
C. Kidney function
D. Drug dissolution
Answer: A
Q42. Drug-food interaction can affect:
A. Drug absorption
B. Drug metabolism
C. Drug action
D. All of these
Answer: D
Q43. Nephrotoxicity means toxicity to:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Brain
Answer: B
Q44. Hepatotoxicity affects:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Lungs
Answer: A
Q45. Aminoglycosides commonly cause:
A. Ototoxicity
B. Cataract
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Peptic ulcer
Answer: A
MEDICATION ERRORS & SAFETY (Q46–60)
Q46. Medication error may occur during:
A. Prescribing
B. Dispensing
C. Administration
D. All of these
Answer: D
Q47. Prescription errors are reduced by:
A. Illegible handwriting
B. Clear communication
C. Verbal orders only
D. Polypharmacy
Answer: B
Q48. Polypharmacy increases risk of:
A. Drug interactions
B. ADRs
C. Non-compliance
D. All of these
Answer: D
Q49. Medication reconciliation helps prevent:
A. Drug duplication
B. Omission errors
C. Interaction errors
D. All of these
Answer: D
Q50. High-alert medications require:
A. Special precautions
B. Open storage
C. No labeling
D. Self-medication only
Answer: A
Q51. Insulin dosing errors may cause:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypertension
C. Asthma
D. Cataract
Answer: A
Q52. LASA drugs stands for:
A. Low absorption safe agents
B. Look-alike sound-alike drugs
C. Long acting sterile agents
D. Liquid analytical sterile agents
Answer: B
Q53. Medication chart review helps identify:
A. Drug interactions
B. Duplication
C. Wrong dose
D. All of these
Answer: D
Q54. Root cause analysis is used for:
A. Manufacturing
B. Investigating medication errors
C. Drug promotion
D. Tablet coating
Answer: B
Q55. Rational drug use means:
A. Appropriate medicine in correct dose and duration
B. Multiple antibiotics always
C. Self-medication only
D. Irrational combinations
Answer: A
Q56. Antibiotic stewardship aims to:
A. Increase irrational antibiotic use
B. Promote appropriate antibiotic use
C. Avoid infection control
D. Reduce patient counseling
Answer: B
Q57. Needle-stick injury may transmit:
A. HBV
B. HIV
C. HCV
D. All of these
Answer: D
Q58. Biomedical waste sharps are disposed in:
A. Black bag
B. White puncture-proof container
C. Green bag
D. Blue bag
Answer: B
Q59. Hand hygiene is essential to prevent:
A. Nosocomial infections
B. Tablet defects
C. Drug instability
D. Counterfeiting
Answer: A
Q60. Medication incident reporting improves:
A. Patient safety
B. Error repetition
C. Confusion
D. Drug wastage
Answer: A
PHARMACY CALCULATIONS & MISCELLANEOUS (Q61–70)
Q61. 1 g equals:
A. 100 mg
B. 1000 mg
C. 10 mg
D. 10 µg
Answer: B
Q62. Percentage strength 5% w/v means:
A. 5 g in 100 mL
B. 5 mg in 1 mL
C. 50 g in 1 mL
D. 100 g in 5 mL
Answer: A
Q63. Isotonic solutions have osmotic pressure equal to:
A. Pure water
B. Body fluids
C. Alcohol
D. Acids
Answer: B
Q64. Normal saline contains:
A. 0.45% NaCl
B. 0.9% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 10% NaCl
Answer: B
Q65. IV infusion rate is commonly measured in:
A. mg/min only
B. Drops/min
C. Liters/hour only
D. ppm
Answer: B
Q66. Drug half-life influences:
A. Dosing interval
B. Tablet color
C. Bottle size
D. Drug price only
Answer: A
Q67. Creatinine clearance estimates:
A. Liver function
B. Kidney function
C. Heart rate
D. Blood pressure
Answer: B
Q68. Bioavailability is highest with:
A. Oral route
B. IV route
C. Topical route
D. Rectal route
Answer: B
Q69. Therapeutic index indicates:
A. Drug safety margin
B. Drug color
C. Drug packaging
D. Drug odor
Answer: A
Q70. Evidence-based medicine combines:
A. Research evidence + clinical expertise
B. Advertising only
C. Traditional myths only
D. Cost only